I have found myself wondering several questions after reading this article.
I wouldn't hesitate to call these men criminals but, while I think the term applies, I do hesitate to call them sadists. I suspect this is because I want to protect the term as it applies to sadists who practice safe, sane and consensual s/m.
Some of my questions are:
Why couldn't these men utilize SSC BDSM as a means to satisfy their kink? Surely they were aware there are communities and individuals who indulge in these fantasies without having to resort to criminal behavior? Is their kink dependent on non-consent? Does that mean there is a sociopathic element involved? How common is it for sociopaths to sexualize their sadistic tendencies? In what ways is this different from "my" sadism? You could argue that it was consensual because the victim effectively signed up for it, but you could also argue she was coerced or brainwashed or suffering from Stockholm syndrome.
It puzzles me how normal people can engage in some of the same or similar behavior but because they've received consent and the session ends it's not considered a "sociopathic sadism". Is consent and the lack of serious harm the only thing that sets them apart or is there also something else? Empathy, maybe? What else?
I wouldn't hesitate to call these men criminals but, while I think the term applies, I do hesitate to call them sadists. I suspect this is because I want to protect the term as it applies to sadists who practice safe, sane and consensual s/m.
Some of my questions are:
Why couldn't these men utilize SSC BDSM as a means to satisfy their kink? Surely they were aware there are communities and individuals who indulge in these fantasies without having to resort to criminal behavior? Is their kink dependent on non-consent? Does that mean there is a sociopathic element involved? How common is it for sociopaths to sexualize their sadistic tendencies? In what ways is this different from "my" sadism? You could argue that it was consensual because the victim effectively signed up for it, but you could also argue she was coerced or brainwashed or suffering from Stockholm syndrome.
It puzzles me how normal people can engage in some of the same or similar behavior but because they've received consent and the session ends it's not considered a "sociopathic sadism". Is consent and the lack of serious harm the only thing that sets them apart or is there also something else? Empathy, maybe? What else?